Can you have a neutral interest rate when bank regulations are not neutral?

That theoretical interest rate that neither pushes nor restrains the economy from its natural rhythm of growth, is called the neutral interest rate, and is of course the subject of much interest by central bankers.

But what these bankers never discuss, who knows why, is what happens to this neutral interest rate, if bank regulations are not neutral.

Current risk weighted capital requirements for banks which allow banks to earn higher risk adjusted returns on equity with what is perceived, decreed or concocted as safe, than with what is perceived as risky, are clearly not neutral.

They push bank credit to the “safe” areas and away from the “risky” and that distortion must have a real cost for the economy.

Just for a starter, since the risk-weight assigned to the sovereign is 0%, all those “risky” SMEs and entrepreneurs who will not get credit or need to pay more for it, only because of these regulations that are biased against them, are paying a regulatory tax that is directly subsidizing lower interest rates for the government.

As I have argued many times before… we do not have real risk-free rates, we have subsidized risk-free interest rates.

Olivier Blanchard agrees there is a need for more research on whether bank regulations have distorted

In the IMF’s Annual Research Conference during the final Economic Forum: Policy challenge after the Great Recession I had the chance to pose Olivier Blanchard a question session of Professor Lawrence Summers Mundell Fleming Lecture I had a chance the pose a question (1:01:10)

My Question: 

I might insist here briefly on a point: Why do you say that interest rates on public debt are low, when they are based on so much of regulatory subsidies? Add to the zero low rates of the public debt, all those costs that comes from not giving SMEs and entrepreneurs, millions of them, the chances for credit, only as a result of the distortions produced by risk weighted capital requirements for banks.

Olivier Blanchard answer: 

This is a theme that you have explored over the years. You are absolutely right that the answer is: if the very low safe rates is due to distortions, then the first order of business, should be to eliminate the distortions.

That’s true, if your right, of regulations, but it may be true of the lack of social insurance in some countries which leads people to basically be willing to save enormous amounts that they should not be saving, it could also be true because of missing markets. 

For all this reason you are absolutely right, step zero in what I say, lets make sure that we have removed all the distortions which we can, which affect r (rates), so we have the right r. I take your point.

My afterthoughts: 

I sure appreciate Olivier Blanchard's acceptance of the relevance of my concerns, its been a long trip. In 2004 in a letter published by the Financial Times I wrote “How many Basel propositions will it take before they start realizing the damage they are doing by favoring so much bank lending to the public sector?" 

And I hope the research on it starts now, not only by the IMF. It is long overdue. In fact the possible distortions should have been analyzed before these regulations were imposed.

PS. The day earlier I had posed Professor Lawrence Summers a similar question

PS. Here’s my recent, 2019, comments sent to the Financial Stability Board

PS. Here’s my recent, 2019, letter sent to the IMF

 

Perhaps I did not understand all Professor Lawrence Summers answered me at IMF, but he might have understood less of what I asked/argued.

In the IMF’s Annual Research Conference at the end of Professor Lawrence Summers' Mundell Fleming Lecture I had a chance the pose a question (1:18:25)

Here is the short explanation for my question:

Suppose banks believe that a 10% return on equity to shareholder’s resulting from lending to the sovereign is, in terms of risk, equivalent to a 25% return derived from a diversified portfolio of loans to SMEs.

Then if banks held on average 10% in equity, meaning a leverage of 10 to 1, banks would have to earn about 1% in net margins on sovereigns and on average 2.5% to SMEs to produce those desired ROEs.

But, then suppose that banks were told by regulators that though they must hold the usual 10% of equity against SME loans, they were now allowed to lend to the sovereign holding only 5% in equity, meaning an authorized 20 to 1 leverage. Then banks could produce that 10% ROE on equity by obtaining only a .5% net margin on sovereign loans. That would clearly but downward pressure on the interest rates paid on public debt.

And in 1988, with the Basel Accord, the regulators decided that the risk weight for the sovereign was 0% and that of SMEs 100%... meaning banks were allowed to leverage equity immensely more with public debt than with loans to the private sector.

My question: Professor Summers, today you showed a graph that showed the risk free rate going down over the last 30 years, the risk free rate based on the proxy of public debt of course. And Lord Turner also recently showed that same trend. And it started around 1989/90. Can that not have anything to do with the very clear evidence that in 1988 the Basel Accord decided that for purposes of the risk weighted capital requirements for banks, the risk weight of the public sector, of the sovereign was 0%, and the risk weight for us, we the people, 100% 

Professor Summers' answer: Could it have anything to do with it? Yes it could have something to do with it. 

Notice that your explanation is in the category of Ricardo Caballero’s explanation. Its in the category of something has happened that has shifted the relative demand for government bonds versus other things.

And my argument is that, if that were true, what you would expect to see as the major counterpart to the decline in government rates is a major increase in risk premiums. And the fact is that I think is closer to right, a better first approximation I believe, to assume that risk premiums have been relative constant, or not long term trending, and that real rates have declined, than it is to believe that risk premiums have been long term trending.

And therefore I prefer the saving and investment based explanations, rather than the asset specific explanations of the kind that Ricardo adduces, or of the kind you suggest.

My afterthoughts: 

How is it possible to hold that such in favor of the public sector distorting bank regulations, would not have “shifted the relative demand for government bonds versus other things”?

How is it possible, like Professor Summer does, to use the “artificially low public sector debt rates”, as a justification of putting more financial resources in hands of government bureaucrats, to build infrastructure, than in the hands of the private sector’s SMEs and entrepreneurs?

PS. The day after, I got a much more straightforward answer from Mr. Olivier Blanchard.
PS. Here’s my recent, 2019, comments sent to the Financial Stability Board
PS. Here’s my recent, 2019, letter sent to the IMF