Anyone with some basic financial knowledge must know that banks allocate their portfolio to what produces them the highest risk-adjusted return on their equity; and that constitutes in its turn the best possible (or least bad) way of allocating bank resources to the real economy.
What I cannot for my life figure out is how come a financial professional does not understand that if bank regulators allow banks to hold much less shareholder’s capital against some assets, for instance those perceived as “safe”, than against other assets, for instance those perceived as “risky”, then the banks will earn higher risk adjusted returns on “safe” assets than on “risky” assets, which will distort the allocation of bank credit, and guarantee that the banks will hold too much “safe” assets and too little “risky” assets.
And of course when banks hold “too much” of a “safe” asset, then that asset could turn into a very risky asset for the banks. This is by the way something empirically well established. Never ever has a major bank crisis resulted from excessive exposures to what was perceived ex ante as “risky”, these have all, no exceptions, resulted from excessive exposures to what was ex ante, erroneously perceived as safe... like AAA-rated securities, Greece, etc.
And of course holding “too little” of the “risky” assets, like of loans to medium and small businesses, entrepreneurs and start ups, is very bad for the real economy which thrives on risk-taking, and is therefore, in the medium term, something also very risky for the banks.
How come all those reputable tenured finance professors in so reputable universities did not care one iota about the allocation of bank credit in the real economy was being so completely distorted by the risk-weighted capital requirements for banks?