Clearing for perceived risk vs. discriminating based on perceived risk.

If making good down payments house buyers normally had more and cheaper access to bank credit than an entrepreneurs wanting loan for risky ventures.

But when regulators, with their risk weighted bank capital requirements decreed that banks needed to hold less capital against residential mortgages than against unsecured loans to entrepreneurs; which meant that banks could leverage much more their equity with residential mortgages than with unsecured loans to entrepreneurs; which meant that with the same risk adjusted interest than before banks could earn higher risk adjusted returns on equity with residential mortgages than with unsecured loans to entrepreneurs, the regulators de facto discriminated the access to bank credit in favor of house buyers and against entrepreneurs.

So there’s a world of difference between banks clearing for perceived credit risk and the regulators discriminating the access to bank credit based on perceived credit risk.

With their discrimination regulators decreed inequality

With their 0% risk weighted sovereign and 100% risk weighted citizens regulators decreed that the sovereign has more rights to more and cheaper access to bank credit than citizens.

And, at the end of the day it's all for nothing. That discrimination only sets up our banks to especially large bank crises, caused by especially large exposures to something ex ante perceived, decreed or concocted as especially safe, and which ex post turns into being especially risky, while being held against especially little capital.

A letter to the Financial Stability Board

A letter to the IMF titled: "The risk weights are to access to credit, what tariffs are to trade, only more pernicious."

PS. And do the risk weighted bank capital requirements make the risky riskier?